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CISI International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Sample Questions (Q92-Q97):

NEW QUESTION # 92
What is the standard settlement period in spot currency markets?

A. T+3
B. T+4
C. T+2
D. T+1

Answer: C

Explanation:
The foreign exchange (forex) spot market follows a standard T+2 settlement period, meaning transactions are settled two business days after the trade date.
* Why is Option B Correct?
* In forex trading, T+2 means the buyer receives currency two days after the trade.
* Major currency pairs (e.g., EUR/USD, GBP/USD) follow T+2 settlement.
* Why Not Other Options?
* A (T+1) # Some markets (e.g., US Treasuries) settle in T+1, but forex does not.
* C (T+3) # Used for some equity markets, but not for forex.
* D (T+4) # No standard market uses T+4 settlement.
# Reference: Bank for International Settlements (Forex Market Operations), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.

NEW QUESTION # 93
If a company's Economic Value Added (EVA) is negative, this means that:

A. The company's value is being destroyed
B. The rate of growth in the company's value is below that of the sector average
C. The rate of growth in the company's value is slowing down
D. The company's value is nil

Answer: A

Explanation:
Economic Value Added (EVA) measures a company's true economic profit by assessing whether it generates returns above its cost of capital.
EVA=Net Operating Profit After Tax (NOPAT)#(Capital Employed×Cost of Capital)EVA = ext{Net Operating Profit After Tax (NOPAT)} - ( ext{Capital Employed} imes ext{Cost of Capital}) EVA=Net Operating Profit After Tax (NOPAT)#(Capital Employed×Cost of Capital)
* Why is Option B Correct?
* A negative EVA means the firm's returns are lower than its cost of capital, leading to value destruction.
* Why Not Other Options?
* A (Slowing growth rate) # EVA measures profitability, not growth rate.
* C (Below sector average) # EVA is firm-specific, not a comparative measure.
* D (Value is nil) # A company may still be profitable, but inefficient.
# Reference: CFA Institute (EVA Analysis), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.

NEW QUESTION # 94
Which currency is most heavily traded on international markets?

A. British pound sterling
B. US dollar
C. Euro
D. Japanese yen

Answer: B

Explanation:
The US dollar (USD) is the most heavily traded currency in the global foreign exchange (forex) markets.
* Global Reserve Currency: The USD is held as a reserve currency by central banks worldwide, making it the most liquid and widely used currency.
* Forex Trading Volume: According to the Bank for International Settlements (BIS), the USD accounts for over 88% of global forex transactions.
* Trade & Commodity Pricing: The USD is the primary currency for global trade, oil pricing, and commodity transactions.
* Safe Haven Currency: During economic uncertainty, investors move towards USD as a stable asset.
# Reference: BIS Triennial Survey (2022), IMF Reports on Global Currency Reserves.

NEW QUESTION # 95
According to economic theory, firms maximize profit by:

A. Balancing short-run costs against increasing and diminishing returns
B. Reaching minimum efficient scale (MES)
C. Equating marginal revenue (MR) to marginal cost (MC)
D. Creating economies of scale

Answer: C

Explanation:
# Reference: Microeconomic Theory (Profit Maximization), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.

NEW QUESTION # 96
How does 'relief at source' normally operate in relation to overseas dividend income?

A. A reduced rate of withholding tax is levied
B. A credit is applied against a separate tax liability
C. A tax rebate is paid in cash
D. A staggering of the tax levy is granted

Answer: A

Explanation:
Relief at source for overseas dividend income typically operates by reducing the withholding tax applied to dividends at the source. This is achieved through double taxation agreements (DTAs) between countries, which set out reduced tax rates for such income.
Example:If the standard withholding tax rate in a country is 30%, a DTA may reduce this to 15% for eligible investors.

NEW QUESTION # 97
......

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